$$\text{Case A (Demand Uncertain, Lead Time Fixed): } SS = Z \cdot \sigma_d \cdot \sqrt{L}, \qquad ROP = (\bar{d} \cdot L) + SS$$
$$\text{Case B (Lead Time Uncertain, Demand Fixed): } SS = Z \cdot d \cdot \sigma_L, \qquad ROP = (d \cdot \bar{L}) + SS$$
$$\text{Case C (Dual Uncertainty - Both Variable): } SS = Z \cdot \sqrt{\bar{L} \cdot \sigma_d^2 + \bar{d}^2 \cdot \sigma_L^2}, \qquad ROP = (\bar{d} \cdot \bar{L}) + SS$$
ZStandard normal deviate corresponding to desired Cycle Service Level ($CSL$): $90\% \to 1.282$, $95\% \to 1.645$, $97.5\% \to 1.96$, $99\% \to 2.326$.
\sigma_dStandard deviation of daily consumer demand.
\sigma_LStandard deviation of vendor replenishment lead time (in days).
\bar{d}, \bar{L}Average daily demand rate ($\bar{d}$) and average vendor lead time ($\bar{L}$).
Strategic Managerial Takeaway: The Lead-Time Volatility Killer:
In Case C, lead time variance is multiplied by mean daily demand squared ($\bar{d}^2$)! For example, if $\bar{d} = 100$, $\bar{d}^2 = 10,000$. Consequently, supplier delivery unreliability causes over 80–95% of real-world safety stock bloat. Compressing supplier lead-time variance ($\sigma_L$) releases vastly more capital than trying to improve customer forecasting accuracy ($\sigma_d$).
💼 Full Marks Numerical Solved Problem (Case C Dual Uncertainty)
A hospital pharmacy manages critical antibiotics: Average daily demand $\bar{d} = 100$ vials/day, $\sigma_d = 15$ vials/day. Supplier lead time averages $\bar{L} = 9$ days, with $\sigma_L = 2$ days. Management mandates a 95% Cycle Service Level ($Z = 1.645$).
• Step 1 (Demand Variance Component): \bar{L} \cdot \sigma_d^2 = 9 \times (15)^2 = 9 \times 225 = 2,025
• Step 2 (Lead Time Variance Component): \bar{d}^2 \cdot \sigma_L^2 = (100)^2 \times (2)^2 = 10,000 \times 4 = 40,000
• Step 3 (Combined Lead-Time Std Dev): \sigma_{DL} = \sqrt{2,025 + 40,000} = \sqrt{42,025} = 205.0\text{ vials}
• Step 4 (Safety Stock Calculation): SS = 1.645 \times 205.0 = 337.2 \approx 338\text{ vials}
• Step 5 (Expected Lead Time Demand): \text{LTD} = \bar{d} \cdot \bar{L} = 100 \times 9 = 900\text{ vials}
• Step 6 (Reorder Point ROP): ROP = 900 + 338 = \mathbf{1,238\text{ vials}} (Place replenishment order when stock hits 1,238).
⚠️ Exam Trap: Notice that lead time variance ($40,000$) contributed $95.2\%$ of the total system risk ($42,025$), while demand variance contributed only $4.8\%$! Mentioning this in your exam answer earns top distinction marks.
$$TC(Q) = (D \cdot C_j) + \left(\frac{D}{Q}\right)S + \left(\frac{Q}{2}\right)(i \cdot C_j)$$
C_jUnit acquisition price at discount tier $j$ (where price drops as order quantity crosses breakpoint $q_j$).
D \cdot C_jAnnual purchase cost (this is now a variable decision cost because price changes with quantity!).
i \cdot C_jUnit carrying cost scales dynamically with the discounted purchase price $C_j$.
Decision Algorithm Protocol (Step-by-Step):
1. Calculate $Q^*$ for the lowest price tier (highest volume discount).
2. If $Q^* \ge \text{minimum qualification volume}$, it is globally optimal.
3. If $Q^* < \text{minimum volume}$ (infeasible), evaluate Total Cost $TC$ at the minimum qualifying price-break volume, and compare against $TC$ at the feasible EOQ of higher-priced tiers.
4. Select the quantity that yields the absolute lowest Total Annual Cost $TC$.
💼 Quantity Discount Numerical Comparison
$D = 5,000$ units/year, $S = ₹200$/order, $i = 20\%$ annual holding charge.
• Tier 1 ($Q < 1,000$): $C_1 = ₹10.00 \implies H_1 = ₹2.00 \implies Q_1^* = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 5000 \times 200}{2}} = 1,000$ (infeasible at boundary).
• Tier 2 ($Q \ge 1,000$): $C_2 = ₹9.50 \implies H_2 = ₹1.90 \implies Q_2^* = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 5000 \times 200}{1.90}} = 1,026\text{ units}$ (FEASIBLE!).
• Total Cost at Q = 1,026: TC = (5000 \times 9.50) + \left(\frac{5000}{1026}\right)200 + \left(\frac{1026}{2}\right)1.90 = 47,500 + 974.66 + 974.70 = \mathbf{₹49,449.36}
• Result: Ordering 1,026 units secures the ₹9.50 discount price, saving over ₹3,000 compared to un-discounted purchasing.